What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy?

What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy?

A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned?
A. A4751 B. A4751 × 2 C. A4918 × 2 D. A4918
52. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called
A. shaving. B. debridement. C. excision. D. biopsy.
53. A coder would assign modifier -53 to report
A. dental procedures. B. repeat procedures. C. anesthesia administration. D. procedures cancelled due to the patient’s condition.
54. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows
A. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions. B. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess. C. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.
55. Code range 99231–99233 pertains to
A. initial hospital care. B. subsequent hospital care. C. consultation services. D. hospital discharge services.
56. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient’s complaints, the physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete history and examination, the patient’s final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal ulcer. The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the day of discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99234, N17.9 B. 99223, I48.91 C. 99238, K26.7 D. 99291, D63.1
57. The specific guidelines that constitute a valid release of information under the HIPAA Privacy Rule are described as
A. OIG specifications. B. E/M levels. C. considerations in relation to risk management. D. core elements.
58. The suffix –centesis means
A. abnormal condition. B. calculus or stone. C. a surgical puncture for fluid removal. D. separation, breakdown, destruction.
59. The code for an ESWL would be found in the
A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT. B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. C. Digestive System of CPT. D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.
60. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311 B. 15852-58, Z48.01 C. 11602, 15240, C50.312 D. 19307-RT, 19101-RT, C50.211
61. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis?
A. The observation code B. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed C. The allergy code D. The anesthesia administration
62. Anti-inflammatory drugs applied to the skin to relieve skin disorders are called
A. topical corticosteroids. B. antiseptics. C. keratolytics. D. astringents.
63. The _______ nerve sends visual data to the occipital lobe of the brain.
A. abducens B. trochlear C. optic D. oculomotor
64. The root word OBSTETR/O means
A. pregnancy. B. cesarean. C. midwife. D. birth.
65. The root word ENTER/O means
A. tooth. B. stomach. C. intestine. D. secretion.
66. What code would be assigned for gastropathy?
A. K29.7 B. K41.31 C. K31.9 D. K41.2
67. A patient comes to the physician’s office complaining of neck irritation. The physician examines her neck and notes that she has a 15 cm neck scar. Upon further examination, the physician notes that the neck scar requires extensive debridement and retention sutures. The physician performs a dermabrasion to treat the neck scar and then closes the complex wound with the sutures. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 13132, 13133 × 2, L90.5 B. 13132, 13133 × 3, H81.09, L92.9 C. 13133-51, 13131-79, L60.0 D. 13132, L76.82
68. The bulbourethral gland is found in the _______ system.
A. neurological B. cardiovascular C. male genital D. female genital
69. A tethered health record allows patients to
A. restructure insurance copayments. B. use a secure portal to access their own records. C. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses. D. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.
70. A patient is diagnosed with lymphocytic lymphoma. Another patient is seen several weeks later and is diagnosed with histiocytic lymphoma. Both of these diagnoses are examples of _______ lymphoma.
A. basic B. Hodgkin’s C. non-Hodgkin’s D. Burkitt’s
71. A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned?
A. E0976 B. E0607 C. E0562 D. E4752
72. A good compliance program in the health care setting includes
A. HHS surveillance. B. regular tracking and monitoring of coding activities. C. meetings with compliance officers. D. regular audit consultations with trustees of the AAPC.
73. A patient with numerous symptoms is seen in the laboratory for a general health panel to gauge her overall physical well-being. What CPT code would be assigned for a general health panel?
A. 80051 B. 82136 C. 84135 D. 80050
74. Code 71030-TC indicates a/an
A. complete chest x-ray, four views, technical component only. B. incomplete chest x-ray, two views, technical and professional component. C. complete chest x-ray, two views, technical component only. D. incomplete chest x-ray, three views, technical and professional component
75. If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can
A. also fulfill requests for prescription data. B. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records. C. complete employee paperwork. D. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.
76. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. A23.24 B. A02.21 C. A05.26 D. A07.21
77. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of right knee pain. He states that he was playing baseball the previous evening and accidentally fell when sliding into first base. The physician obtains an expanded problem focused history and examination, as well as a two-view x-ray of the right knee. The physician reviews the x-ray, as well as the notes in the medical record, and renders a diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the knee. The physician performs a patellofemoral arthroplasty to repair the knee. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 27477, M17.12 B. 27506-RT, N17.11 C. 27477-RT, D17.39 D. 27447-RT, M17.11
78. Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called
A. copayment. B. protection. C. indemnity. D. secured loss.
79. HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the
A. lower left eyelid. B. upper left eyelid. C. upper right eyelid. D. lower right eyelid.
80. When is code 58120 assigned?
A. The code is assigned for permanent pacemaker insertion. B. The code has been deleted and cannot be assigned. C. The code is assigned for a patient undergoing dilatation and curettage. D. The code is assigned as an add-on code.
81. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of
A. extracellular matrix. B. endocrine gland cells. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. columnar epithelial cells.
82. Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient?
A. P4 B. P1 C. P5 D. P3
83. The anatomical location of the calyx is the
A. spine. B. brain. C. arm. D. kidney.
84. Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule?
A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files. B. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians. C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties. D. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.
85. The I-10 helps coders classify patient
A. morbidity and mortality. B. management information. C. evaluation files. D. reimbursement data.
86. During a routine examination, a male patient is diagnosed with an elevated PSA. The physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 55725, 76000-26, R93.6 B. 55700, 76872-26, R97.2 C. 55734, 73200-26, R97.2 D. 55720, 74000-26, R97.3
87. Health care practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and procedures for
A. 20 years. B. 10 months. C. 2 years. D. 6 years.
88. A patient comes to the emergency department of a rural hospital. He complaints of problems sleeping, foot swelling, and insomnia. After a detailed review of the patient’s history and a detailed examination, the patient is diagnosed with chronic renal insufficiency, nephrotic syndrome, and anemia, based on the values listed in his blood test. The patient undergoes a biopsy of the left and right kidneys under physician guidance. A CT scan is also used for guidance and needle placement. A follow-up CT scan with physician review and interpretation is also performed. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 50500-73, 51200-LT, C79.2, C61 B. 50200-RT-LT, 50310-RT, 51252-26, E46, N18.9, N04.9 C. 51000, 50310-59-LT, J90, Z90.12, E85.4 D. 50200-50, 50200-59-RT, 77012.26, N18.9, N04.9, D64.9
89. Data stored in a health care facility must
A. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely. B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures. C. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange. D. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.
90. Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may
A. be blacklisted according to geographic location. B. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services. C. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General. D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.
91. Which of the following anesthesia modifiers indicates a normal, healthy patient?
A. P3 B. P1 C. P4 D. P2
92. When coding burns, coders should
A. classify all burns as acute burns. B. assign separate codes for each burn site. C. assign the code for third-degree burns. D. assign the code for chronic burns.
93. A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under
A. Medicare Part D. B. Medicare Part A. C. Medicare Part B. D. Medicare Part C.
94. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 62270, G44.1 B. 62270, G74.3 C. 62141, G46.8 D. 62272, G46.9
95. What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy?
A. 33210 B. 33026 C. 33015 D. 33050
96. What is the code description for 65101-LT?
A. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally B. Fine needle aspiration of orbital contents on the left third of the orbit C. Biopsy of cornea performed on the lower third of the cornea D. Enucleation of eye, without implant, performed on the left side of the body
97. Another name for diazepam is
A. Flexeril. B. Valium. C. Norflex. D. Myolastan.
98. The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of
A. prospective payment organizations. B. retrospective payment organizations. C. ambulatory payment surgery centers. D. health maintenance organizations.
99. The CPT code for thrombolysis is
A. 93000. B. 92975. C. 92920. D. 93797.
100. According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for
A. paternity testing. B. research. C. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history. D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

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